Explanation of calls
West opens 1 Club (P) East bids 1 Heart (P) W 2 Clubs (P) E 4 NT (P) W 5D (P) E (after much hesitation) 6NT. South asks East, at his turn to call, the partnership understanding for Wests 5 D bid. East refuses to answer and states that South is not allowed to ask as he is not going to bid. East argues that the question could only help South find the best opening lead, therefore benefits his partner (20G1) and must be asked after the biddng is completed.
South holds Hearts Q,8,7,2, DIA J,10,8,5,4, expects to make a heart trick and although admits is not likely to bid, argues he is entitled to the information.
South strongly disagreed.
1. Can East refuse to reply on an assumption that the question is purely for South's partners benefit (20G1) or should he wait to call the director when evidence of such action appears i.e. a bid/play from North as a result of South's question.
2. If South had asked the question purely to ponder his best opening lead and with no other reason, is that enough to suggest that the question will benefit his partner?