Psych, or just being naughty?
I play/direct at a low-level, unsophisticated club.
In 20+ years I've never encountered a psych until recently. I wasn't called to the table so wasn't asked to rule but it was drawn to my attention a couple of days later. The question is what should I have ruled, had I been called to the table?
East (dealer) opens 1H, South overcalls 1S (not alerted), West raises to 2H, then all pass.
South's Spade suit was - Q 10 9 4 3, he had the H5 and was 4-3 in the Minors. Only 2 HCPs!
N/S are playing essentially Acol, albeit they do have an aggressive style (multi-2 and tartan).
N/S were NV, E/W were Vul.
Was South's bid a sufficient enough deviation from "Standard" Acol, whatever that is, to be classed as a psych?
North passed, holding:
J 8 4
K Q J 2
K 5 4 2
Had I been sat North, and my partner had overcalled 1S, I would not have passed 2H, I would have competed, assuming we had the balance of points.
In my very humble and inexperienced opinion I believe that North "fielded" the psych - if indeed South's bid was a psych.
For some reason, East didn't bid again, despite holding a good 17 HCPs, so I have little sympathy.
Hypothetical, follow-on question, however:
Had E/W ended in game (as they should have done), but went one off, having been misled and playing South for a 'reasonable' number of HCPs, would it be right to adjust the score to E/W making?
Sorry if this is a bit long-winded.